Pass Guaranteed 2025 Updated CAS-004: Instant CompTIA Advanced Security Practitioner (CASP+) Exam Discount
Pass Guaranteed 2025 Updated CAS-004: Instant CompTIA Advanced Security Practitioner (CASP+) Exam Discount
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CompTIA CAS-004 (CompTIA Advanced Security Practitioner (CASP+)) Certification Exam is designed for professionals who want to validate their advanced-level security skills and knowledge. CAS-004 exam is intended for individuals who have already obtained foundational security certifications such as CompTIA Security+ and have a minimum of 10 years of experience in IT administration, including at least five years of hands-on technical security experience.
Prerequisites of CompTIA CAS-004 certification Exam
CompTIA CAS-004 is one of the CompTIA Advanced Security Practitioner certification and aims to provide candidates with a thorough understanding of security practices, technologies, and trends. This means the person must be able to identify, analyze, and correct problems associated with security breaches. The candidate must also have the skills necessary to maintain the security of a stand-alone or networked computer system or data communication facility.
Before enrolling in the CompTIA CAS-004 Exam, you must meet the following prerequisites:
- Experience in at least one of the following areas: security policy, risk management, information security law or policies, information security standards and guidelines.
- One year of related work experience.
- Experience in at least one of the following: penetration testing, secure coding, vulnerability assessment, cryptography, incident response and incident management.
- A bachelor's degree in any field.
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CompTIA CAS-004 (CompTIA Advanced Security Practitioner (CASP+)) Exam is a certification exam designed for IT professionals who have advanced skills in cybersecurity. CAS-004 exam is the highest level of certification offered by CompTIA and is designed to validate the skills and knowledge of cybersecurity professionals in the industry. The CASP+ certification is globally recognized and highly respected in the industry, making it a valuable credential for those looking to advance their career in cybersecurity.
CompTIA Advanced Security Practitioner (CASP+) Exam Sample Questions (Q186-Q191):
NEW QUESTION # 186
The findings from a recent penetration test report indicate a systematic issue related to cross-site scripting (XSS). A security engineer would like to prevent this type of issue for future reports. Which of the following mitigation strategies should the engineer use to best resolve the issue?
- A. Leverage an API management system to filter information.
- B. Configure a DAST tool for all applications.
- C. Request resources to develop a secure library to address encoding issues.
- D. Implement static analysis with blocking capabilities in the CI/CD system.
- E. Require all developers to take secure coding training that focuses on OWASP principles.
Answer: E
Explanation:
Secure coding training focused on OWASP principlesis the most comprehensive long-term solution to address the root cause of XSS vulnerabilities by ensuring developers understand how to write secure code, including proper encoding and input validation.
Option A (Static analysis): This helps identify vulnerabilities in code but does not address the root cause.
Option B (Secure library): While useful, it does not tackle inconsistent secure coding practices across the team.
Option C (API management): This is more relevant for API-related security but does not resolve broader XSS issues.
Option D (DAST tool): Dynamic testing identifies issues in runtime but does not prevent them in development.
Reference:
CompTIA CASP+ Exam Objective 4.1: Analyze application vulnerabilities and implement secure coding best practices.
CASP+ Study Guide, 5th Edition, Chapter 8, Secure Application Development.
NEW QUESTION # 187
A company has decided that only administrators are permitted to use PowerShell on their Windows computers. Which of the following is the BEST way for an administrator to implement this decision?
Monitor the Application and Services Logs group within Windows Event Log.
- A. Provide user education and training.
- B. Uninstall PowerSheII from all workstations.
- C. Configure user settings in Group Policy.
- D. Block PowerSheII via HIDS.
Answer: A
Explanation:
Configuring user settings in Group Policy is the best way for an administrator to implement the decision to restrict PowerShell access to only administrators. Group Policy is a feature of Windows that allows administrators to manage and enforce settings for users and computers in a domain. By using Group Policy, an administrator can create a policy that blocks or disables PowerShell for all users except for a particular group, such as administrators. This policy can be applied to all computers in the domain or to specific organizational units. This method is more effective and manageable than uninstalling PowerShell, monitoring event logs, providing user education, or blocking PowerShell via HIDS. Verified Reference:
https://www.windowscentral.com/how-disable-powershell-windows-10
https://learn.microsoft.com/en-us/answers/questions/195218/how-to-restrict-powershell-for-all-users-except-fo
https://windowsloop.com/block-disable-powershell/
NEW QUESTION # 188
A security engineer needs to review the configurations of several devices on the network to meet the following requirements:
* The PostgreSQL server must only allow connectivity in the 10.1.2.0/24 subnet.
* The SSH daemon on the database server must be configured to listen
to port 4022.
* The SSH daemon must only accept connections from a Single
workstation.
* All host-based firewalls must be disabled on all workstations.
* All devices must have the latest updates from within the past eight
days.
* All HDDs must be configured to secure data at rest.
* Cleartext services are not allowed.
* All devices must be hardened when possible.
Instructions:
Click on the various workstations and network devices to review the posture assessment results. Remediate any possible issues or indicate that no issue is found.
Click on Server A to review output data. Select commands in the appropriate tab to remediate connectivity problems to the pOSTGREsql DATABASE VIA ssh
WAP A
PC A
Laptop A
Switch A
Switch B:
Laptop B
PC B
PC C
Server A
Answer:
Explanation:
See the Explanation below for the solution.
Explanation:
WAP A: No issue found. The WAP A is configured correctly and meets the requirements.
PC A = Enable host-based firewall to block all traffic
This option will turn off the host-based firewall and allow all traffic to pass through. This will comply with the requirement and also improve the connectivity of PC A to other devices on the network. However, this option will also reduce the security of PC A and make it more vulnerable to attacks. Therefore, it is recommended to use other security measures, such as antivirus, encryption, and password complexity, to protect PC A from potential threats.
Laptop A: Patch management
This option will install the updates that are available for Laptop A and ensure that it has the most recent security patches and bug fixes. This will comply with the requirement and also improve the performance and stability of Laptop A. However, this option may also require a reboot of Laptop A and some downtime during the update process. Therefore, it is recommended to backup any important data and close any open applications before applying the updates.
Switch A: No issue found. The Switch A is configured correctly and meets the requirements.
Switch B: No issue found. The Switch B is configured correctly and meets the requirements.
Laptop B: Disable unneeded services
This option will stop and disable the telnet service that is using port 23 on Laptop B. Telnet is a cleartext service that transmits data in plain text over the network, which exposes it to eavesdropping, interception, and modification by attackers. By disabling the telnet service, you will comply with the requirement and also improve the security of Laptop B. However, this option may also affect the functionality of Laptop B if it needs to use telnet for remote administration or other purposes. Therefore, it is recommended to use a secure alternative to telnet, such as SSH or HTTPS, that encrypts the data in transit.
PC B: Enable disk encryption
This option will encrypt the HDD of PC B using a tool such as BitLocker or VeraCrypt. Disk encryption is a technique that protects data at rest by converting it into an unreadable format that can only be decrypted with a valid key or password. By enabling disk encryption, you will comply with the requirement and also improve the confidentiality and integrity of PC B's data. However, this option may also affect the performance and usability of PC B, as it requires additional processing time and user authentication to access the encrypted data. Therefore, it is recommended to backup any important data and choose a strong key or password before encrypting the disk.
PC C: Disable unneeded services
This option will stop and disable the SSH daemon that is using port 22 on PC C. SSH is a secure service that allows remote access and command execution over an encrypted channel. However, port 22 is the default and well-known port for SSH, which makes it a common target for brute-force attacks and port scanning. By disabling the SSH daemon on port 22, you will comply with the requirement and also improve the security of PC C. However, this option may also affect the functionality of PC C if it needs to use SSH for remote administration or other purposes. Therefore, it is recommended to enable the SSH daemon on a different port, such as 4022, by editing the configuration file using the following command:
sudo nano /etc/ssh/sshd_config
Server A. Need to select the following:
A black and white screen with white text Description automatically generated
NEW QUESTION # 189
A company wants to implement a cloud-based security solution that will sinkhole malicious DNS requests.
The security administrator has implemented technical controls to direct DNS requests to the cloud servers but wants to extend the solution to all managed and unmanaged endpoints that may have user-defined DNS manual settings.
Which of the following should the security administrator implement to ensure the solution will protect all connected devices?
- A. Implement DHCP options as follows:
- B. Implement firewall ACLs as follows
- C. Implement policy routing as follows:
- D. Implement NAT as follows:
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION # 190
A client is adding scope to a project. Which of the following processes should be used when requesting updates or corrections to the client's systems?
- A. The information system security officer provides the systems engineer with the system updates.
- B. The security engineer asks the project manager to review the updates for the client's system.
- C. The implementation engineer requests direct approval from the systems engineer and the Chief Information Security Officer.
- D. The change control board must review and approve a submission.
Answer: D
Explanation:
The change control board (CCB) is a committee that consists of subject matter experts and managers who decide whether to implement proposed changes to a project. The change control board is part of the change management plan, which defines the roles and processes for managing change within a team or organization.
The change control board must review and approve a submission for any change request that affects the scope, schedule, budget, quality, or risks of the project. The change control board evaluates the impact and benefits of the change request and decides whether to accept, reject, or defer it.
A: The implementation engineer requesting direct approval from the systems engineer and the Chief Information Security Officer is not a correct process for requesting updates or corrections to the client's systems, because it bypasses the change control board and the project manager. This could lead to unauthorized changes that could compromise the project's objectives and deliverables.
C: The information system security officer providing the systems engineer with the system updates is not a correct process for requesting updates or corrections to the client's systems, because it does not involve the change control board or the project manager. This could lead to unauthorized changes that could introduce security vulnerabilities or conflicts with other system components.
D: The security engineer asking the project manager to review the updates for the client's system is not a correct process for requesting updates or corrections to the client's systems, because it does not involve the change control board. The project manager is responsible for facilitating the change management process, but not for approving or rejecting change requests.
https://www.projectmanager.com/blog/change-control-board-roles-responsibilities-processes
NEW QUESTION # 191
......
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